International
A "mathematical proof" of the equality "infinity=0" but of course there is a fallacy. Could you find it? (in english,spanish and in french but anyone could understand the "proof" with a low high school level in mathematics and a not so bad first school level )
1 1 1 1 1= 1-1 2-2 3-3 4-4 5
5=5;
1 1 1 1...n times=n
1 (-1 2) (-2 3) (-3 4) (-n n 1)=
n;
n=n;
stupid...
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